Post by Nigel on Mar 10, 2009 11:02:40 GMT
I just had a curious thought.
The issue of Scottish independence often comes up in the news. Seeing as it was the Scottish monarchy that took over the English throne, surely it should be a question of English independence? Especially as James VI / James I (and, indeed, the House of Windsor) was descended from both the Scottish Stewarts and Welsh Tudors. (You could argue that technically there hasn't even been an English monarchy since 1066.)
Edit: Heh. Ken Bruce just read out my email on the point on his Radio 2 programme. (It was after Scottish independence was briefly mentioned on there that the thought suddenly occurred to me.)
The issue of Scottish independence often comes up in the news. Seeing as it was the Scottish monarchy that took over the English throne, surely it should be a question of English independence? Especially as James VI / James I (and, indeed, the House of Windsor) was descended from both the Scottish Stewarts and Welsh Tudors. (You could argue that technically there hasn't even been an English monarchy since 1066.)
Edit: Heh. Ken Bruce just read out my email on the point on his Radio 2 programme. (It was after Scottish independence was briefly mentioned on there that the thought suddenly occurred to me.)
